The Question: “What happened in King James’ Catholic revisionist committee that caused a change from the Protestant English neuter “it” to a Catholic masculine “he”? 

The KJ version was created because King James, a Catholic, hated the extensive Protestant and Calvinistic anti-Pope, anti-Catholic margin notes of the 1560 Geneva Bible.  On what scriptural basis did James’ revisers establish the “word” or “logos” as a separate spirit being or entity?  —On the word of Catholic Church “fathers.”  Remember that mostly Catholic (or other) trinitarians interpreted and revised the Bible in virtually every English edition.  And recall that the KJV NT was not a new translation from the original manuscript copies but a revision of earlier Bibles.  Further, the NAS Bible that Dr. Antion prefers is an “eclectic” revision derived from the KJ line.  The word “eclectic” means to pick and choose.  I challenge Dr. Antion’s passionate assertion that the NASB represents “the very best manuscripts from the very best scholarly minds.”

Once the KJ revision was firmly established by the prevailing Roman Catholic authority, this “authorized” Bible was forced upon the English world under Catholic control.  The revision of the “logos/word” in English Bibles as a presumptive preexistent Jesus therefore became an unalterable trinitarian position.  Had the revisers maintained the previous convention as the Tyndale NT, the Geneva Bible, and others translated it, the prologue to John’s gospel would not be such a contentious, confusing, or complex issue.

The Greek word logos is God’s utterance; his gospel (Lk.5:1).  It existed in the beginning (2Jn.6, Isa.48:3-6).  “In the beginning was the word” (Jn.1:1).  The masculinity of logos as a Greek word never refers to a person.  Logos is masculine and in the Greek takes a masculine pronoun, but the English translation “word” is neuter and takes a neuter pronoun, “it.”  Tyndale knew this but other translators had an agenda.  John’s prologue does not grammatically insist that “word” be a person; this idea was forced by Roman translators.  The bible has much to say about God’s word as utterances (Then God said… Gen.1:6, 9, 14, 20, 24, 26, 29).  God ordered things to occur and they did.  God’s utterance “became represented” in the flesh (Jn.1:14). It, God’s word, became “enfleshed.”  Jesus was not “incarnate.”  Jesus was and is the embodiment of God’s utterances, the “image” of his word that converts and convicts.

“For the word [logos] of God is living and powerful, and sharper than any two-edged sword, piercing even to the division of soul and spirit, and of joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart” (Heb.4:12).  We are dealing with the “personification” of God’s word, not a preexistent person.  In this manner, God conveyed his significance and substance to and through Jesus.  Jesus was the “divine expression,” the logos of God; but not God.

 

 

Logos, Strong’s Greek 3056, “something said (incl. the thought); by implication a topic (subject of discourse), alsoreasoning (the mental faculty) or motive; by extension a computation; spec. (with the art. in John) the Divine Expression (i.e. Christ):— account, cause, communication, × concerning, doctrine, fame, × have to do, intent, matter, mouth, preaching, question, reason, + reckon, remove, say (-ing), show, × speaker, speech, talk, thing,… tidings, treatise, utterance, word, work.”

 

 

¨John 6:46; Dr. Antion emphasizes that no one has seen the Father nor heard his voice (Jn.5:37).  Because of this he implies Jesus must be God.  But Jesus states that no one has seen GOD!  If Jesus were God, then no one saw him either.  No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son [distinct from God], who is in the bosom of the Father…” (Jn.1:18).  But Dr. Antion distorts this passage,replacing the word “God” in his commentary with “God the Father”!  He then implies that people saw “God the Son”!  “In the bosom” of the Father represents an intimate, close relationship (cf. Lk.16:22).  He is the image of THE invisible God” (Col.1: 15).  An “image” is never the real thing.  Jesus was the “personification” or the “reflection” of an invisible God in the visible world.  Only ONE invisible God existed.  If you saw Jesus, you saw the Father (Jn.14:9-10).  God indwelt Jesus in some sense.  Jesus the “God” did not indwell himself.  If Jesus were the God of the OT, he was as invisible as the Father and appeared to nobody (cf. Ex.33:11; Deut. 34:10; cf. Jn.4:24).   (Continued...)

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